On page 400, example 6.26, we are asked to analyze a double-balanced circuit on its \(IP_2\).
I don't get where does (6.127) come from. Since there's no explanation on (6.127), I guess this equation is obvious. So I reduce the problem and try to derive it by myself.
The reduced problem is as follows.
\(M_1\) and \(M_2\) are two identical NMOS. \(I_{SS}\) is the biasing current source. \(V_{RF}^{+}+V_{OS1}\) and \(V_{RF}^-\) are differential input voltages. \(V_{OS1}\) is the offset. \(I_{D1}\) and \(I_{D2}\) are drain currents. The goal is to derive differential output current \(I_{D1}-I_{D2}\).
I don't think this is a small-signal model here because in (6.127), it seems that transconductance is not linearized and depends on bias.
We first write the relation between overdrive voltage and drain current for \(M_1\) and \(M_2\)
The differential input voltage is
And drain current of \(M_{1}\) and \(M_{2}\) are offered by \(I_{SS}\), i.e
The differential output current is
Replace \(I_{D1}\) and \(I_{D2}\) in \((5)\) using \((1)\) and \((2)\), we have
\((7)\) is very similar to (6.127) in the book except for the last term.
To make the derivation trivial we rewrite \((7)\) in terms of over overdrive voltages
Noticing that in (6.127), last term is expressed in terms of \(I_{SS}\) and $ \Delta V_{in}+V_{OS1} = V_{od,1} - V_{od,2}$ (I don't think the sign before \(V_{OS1}\) matters because it is an offset), I guess we can prove this equality, which is
We can replace \((1)\),\((2)\),\((4)\) in \((9)\)
QED